Did Locke reject the idea that people had temporal parts?

Question

I'm currently studying Locke's theory of personal identity and wondered if his writing rejected the idea that people had temporal parts.

Does anyone have any references that would support the idea that Locke assumed people did not have temporal parts?

What have you come across so far in your own research? What reason(s) do you have to suspect that Locke might have held a particular position on this issue? More generally, showing some evidence of prior research will not only improve your question, but also increase the chances of getting upvotes and high-quality answers from our expert users. — Cody Gray - on strike, Apr 20, 2012 at 2:32

iphigenie · Accepted Answer · 2012-12-14 14:41:33Z

1

See §78, Reasons and Persons by Derek Parfit.

He discusses Locke's views on experience-memory as a criterion for identity's persistence over time to some length.

iphigenie

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answered Dec 14, 2012 at 0:06

Ryder

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