There is a well known fallacy called the "argument by analogy" fallacy. As I understand it, the fallacy occurs in a situation where someone makes a reasonable comparison between two situations and then concludes a one-to-one correspondence (or greater correspondence than warranted) between the two situations.
I think there is a strong case to make that most reasoning and knowledge, if not all reasoning and knowledge, is inductive. But what is inductive reason but argument by analogy? For instance, we say we know that the sun will come up tomorrow. Why do we know this? Well, if we think back to all our experiences where we go to bed when it is dark, we wake up and find the sun rises again. Today, before we go to bed at night, we say it will rise tomorrow because we infer it will be like the situations we've had before.
Why is inductive reasoning allowed as an argument but argument by analogy is not?