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I was thinking about the question How can I know that I am not immortal? and started wondering about the relation between induction and falsifiability.

Regarding the cited question, one thinks: well, so far every one of the 100 billion human beings that ever existed died (supposedly, since we didn't verify every and each one, but let's assume). Hence, there is a high probability that I am also mortal.

But if one would choose a scientific hypothesis based on the criteria of falsifiability, the one to choose would be "I am immortal", since it's falsifiable.

I know we can add deductive reasoning from other sources of knowledge (like our knowledge of biological mechanisms), but for the sake of argument, let's stick with inductive.

So, my question is: in cases like that, how does induction relate to falsifiability, and when does one trump the other?

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Why would falsifiability urge someone to choose "I am immortal" over "I am mortal" as a falsifiable hypothesis? As I understand the question you want to stage a situation where induction and falsifiability lead to contrary hypotheses, but that simply isn't the case here. Also a scientific hypothesis usually does quantify universally ("Every x is mortal…"), not over a single case. – DBK Oct 29 '12 at 20:24
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Also note that while induction is a mode of inference, falsifiability is not. In this sense induction yields a (probable) conclusion, while falsifiability does not. (Falsification, not falsifiability, is a mode of inference, namely modus tollens.) – DBK Oct 29 '12 at 20:31
@DBK I understand that falsifiability (not falsification) and induction play different roles. But as one tries to use those different tools for knowledge, there seems to be a point where they differ. Regarding the "I am immortal" hypothesis, it is easily falsifiable, since one simply has to die to prove it wrong. On the other hand, "I am mortal" is not falsifiable (or not easily), since one would have to check forever to see if death never came. That does not strictly contradict the induction, my question is regarding the overall relation between the two approachs. – Koeng Oct 30 '12 at 14:15

2 Answers

how does induction relate to falsifiability, and when does one trump the other?

Why Karl Popper wanted to say that the criteria of falsifiability is better than induction?

Popper wanted to say that induction is not justifiable. That a theory has been corroborated in the past "says nothing whatever about future performance." Popper wanted to say that it is possible to avoid assuming that the future will, or probably will, be like the past, and this is why he has claimed to have solved the problem of induction. We do not have to make the assumption, he tells us, if we proceed by formulating conjectures and attempting to falsify them. He says that, as a basis for action, we should prefer "the best-tested theory." This can only mean the theory that has survived refutation in the past; but why, since Popper says that past corroboration has nothing to do with future performance, is it rational to prefer this?

Without the inductive assumption, the fact that a theory was refuted yesterday is quite irrelevant to its truth-status today. So demising the inductive assumption makes nonsense of Popper's own theory of the growth of scientific knowledge. The more often a conjecture passes efforts to falsify it, Popper maintained, the greater becomes its "corroboration", although corroboration is also uncertain and can never be quantified by degree of probability. "Corroboration" is a form of induction, and Popper has simply sneaked induction in through a back door by giving it a new name.

Every falsification of a conjecture is simultaneously a confirmation of an opposite conjecture, and every conforming instance of a conjecture is a falsification of an opposite conjecture. If Popper bet on a certain horse to win a race, and the horse won, you would not expect him to shout, "Great! My horse failed to lose!" Astronomers look for signs of water on Mars. They do not think they are making efforts to falsify the conjecture that Mars never had water. For Popper, what Carnap called a "degree of confirmation", a logical relation between a conjecture and all relevant evidence, is a useless concept. Instead, the more tests for falsification a theory passes, the more it gains in "corroboration”. It's not so much that Popper disagreed with inductivists as that he restated their views in a bizarre and cumbersome terminology. Why scratch your left ear with your right hand?

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Nice answer. But in this case, "I am mortal" is still a non falsifiable hypothesis. The one that have been falsified over and over, gaining corroboration, is "every human being is mortal", from which I can deduce "I am mortal". Does that mean that "I am mortal" cannon be a direct scientific hypothesis (according to falsifiability only), but has to be indirectly deduced? – Koeng Feb 12 at 14:22
I didn't understand. Falsified over and over is not "every human being is mortal", but "every human being is immortal". In other words, confirmed over and over is "every human is mortal". – Ricardo Bevilaqua Feb 12 at 15:20
My bad, you're right. Consider what I said changing "falsified over and over" for "passing the test of falsification over and over". – Koeng Feb 12 at 22:48

Who is the "I" that is being referred to in your question that is or is not immortal? Eastern religions say that what most consider the I - the physical mind or ego, dies with the body, but there is an inner consciousness which does not die. Who is the real "I"? Ramana Maharshi said that this is the one question we should only ask ourselves - Who am I? Enlightenment is knowing your real I, and not the I of the ego. When you know the real I, you are immortal. Joseph Campbell gave the illustration of the light bulb, the light bulb may burn out, but the electricity that gave the light to the bulb, does not. Vivekananda said that it was this sense of the real I in us that gives us the feeling that we will never die.

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