Timeline for What is this passage from Proposition 4 of Kant's Metaphysical Foundations of Natural Science saying?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
18 events
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S Jan 5 at 19:04 | history | bounty ended | CommunityBot | ||
S Jan 5 at 19:04 | history | notice removed | CommunityBot | ||
Dec 29, 2023 at 22:43 | history | edited | Gerry | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
deleted 28 characters in body
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S Dec 28, 2023 at 17:08 | history | bounty started | Julius Hamilton | ||
S Dec 28, 2023 at 17:08 | history | notice added | Julius Hamilton | Improve details | |
Dec 28, 2023 at 16:42 | comment | added | Julius Hamilton | These are some links that may help anyone to investigate the question further: PDF Wikisource Wikipedia SEP | |
S Dec 28, 2023 at 13:49 | history | suggested | Julius Hamilton | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Made clearer
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Dec 27, 2023 at 21:22 | comment | added | Gerry | Thank you for this explanation. The sentence I most have difficulty with is "Now the space filled by matter is mathematically divisible to infinity, that is, its parts can be distinguished to infinity, although they cannot be moved, and thus cannot be divided (according to geometrical proofs).." I'm confused because of course the parts of a thing are moveable, that's what it means to be parted. So what is here that he says is immoveable? Is he distinguishing immoveable parts of space, points, from parts of matter, which of course is moveable? | |
Dec 26, 2023 at 15:21 | comment | added | Scott Rowe | Physics from 100 years ago shows it to be false. Why continue to pursue it? | |
Dec 26, 2023 at 14:21 | review | Close votes | |||
Dec 28, 2023 at 17:10 | |||||
Dec 26, 2023 at 14:07 | comment | added | Julius Hamilton | Can the OP provide a link to the text? Can the OP add details on what they do and do not understand about the passage; for example, do they have an inkling about why Kant wishes to claim matter is infinitely divisible, or do they not know why Kant brings this up? It may be that a longer excerpt will make it clear what Kant is attempting to establish. | |
Dec 26, 2023 at 14:02 | review | Suggested edits | |||
S Dec 28, 2023 at 13:49 | |||||
Dec 26, 2023 at 13:30 | answer | added | Philip Klöcking♦ | timeline score: 2 | |
Dec 25, 2023 at 9:12 | history | edited | Gerry | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Providing more context to 4:504
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Dec 24, 2023 at 16:50 | history | became hot network question | |||
Dec 24, 2023 at 12:22 | answer | added | Jo Wehler | timeline score: 1 | |
Dec 24, 2023 at 10:54 | comment | added | Chris Degnen | It's from Metaphysical foundations of natural science (1786), proof of Proposition 4, which proposes that "Matter is divisible to infinity, and, in fact, into parts such that each is matter in turn." | |
Dec 24, 2023 at 8:07 | history | asked | Gerry | CC BY-SA 4.0 |