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Jan 7, 2020 at 21:24 vote accept Geremia
Nov 8, 2014 at 5:59 comment added Geremia Let us continue this discussion in chat.
Nov 8, 2014 at 5:41 comment added virmaior But if you have a question about what that means, it would seem to merit a new question rather than a comment thread.
Nov 8, 2014 at 5:41 comment added virmaior No, he does not distinguish them. But keep in mind that reason does not mean "understanding" so it's not related to how we can know things which for Kant would differ from how God knows things. But it's quite clear from the Religion text that he thinks God reasons in the same way we do.
Nov 8, 2014 at 4:24 comment added Geremia Does he sub-distinguish these "pure reason"s? Viz., is there a human "pure reason," angelic "pure reason," Godly "pure reason," etc.?
Nov 7, 2014 at 23:43 comment added virmaior "pure reason" applies to any being with a rational existence for Kant - so humans (who also have a body that is otherwise determined and which gives them the ability to act from reason or desire), God, and angels. And aliens were there to be any found.
Nov 7, 2014 at 22:06 comment added Geremia So, "pure reason" applies to angels, too?
Nov 7, 2014 at 22:05 comment added Geremia Why must reason equal ratiocination? That's precisely what I'm wondering, but maybe you're not implying this.
Nov 5, 2014 at 23:04 comment added virmaior Pure reason might have a logical sequence but it needn't have a temporal sequence.
Nov 5, 2014 at 22:03 comment added virmaior Why must reason equal ratiocination? Moreover, why must Kant accept the idea that angels are outside of time. He needn't follow Aquinas in equating them with stars.
Nov 5, 2014 at 18:24 comment added Geremia The reason is that the CI follows from pure reason and thus is the conclusion any rational being would draw (according to Kant). But angels do not employ ratiocination (reasoning temporally from A → B → C → … etc.) because they are outside time.
Nov 5, 2014 at 3:23 history answered virmaior CC BY-SA 3.0