Timeline for Can the existence of God be proved from mathematics? [closed]
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
22 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Aug 18, 2017 at 4:13 | comment | added | Mark Rosenblitt-Janssen | See the Law of the Eternal at metagovernment.org. | |
| Aug 17, 2017 at 16:55 | comment | added | Bob Jarvis - Слава Україні | @Heinrich: What?!? And there I thought I'd come up with a fool(?)-proof way to get out of studying math. DRAT!!!! :-) | |
| Aug 17, 2017 at 16:47 | comment | added | Hilbert7 | @gnasher729: In science and mathematics the statement "every set can be well-ordered" would mean that everybody with enough education or training could do it. | |
| Aug 17, 2017 at 16:45 | comment | added | Hilbert7 | @Bob Jarvis: Everything can be proven via mathematical arguments whether true or not. You need only introduce the axiom: {here insert what you like} exists. | |
| Aug 17, 2017 at 16:42 | comment | added | Hilbert7 | @gnasher729: The "<" relation does not well-order the real numbers. A set is well-ordered if every non-empty subset has a first element. What would be the first element of the positive real numbers? | |
| Dec 31, 2015 at 18:05 | comment | added | Bob Jarvis - Слава Україні | I suppose one could say that anything can be proven via mathematical arguments (if it is true), and anything can be proven via religious arguments (irregardless of its truth or falsity); thus, mathematical proofs are a subset of religious proofs, and therefore one cannot prove the existence of God mathematically. And therefore it follows that we shouldn't waste time studying math when religion is so much more powerful. QED. | |
| Jul 22, 2015 at 6:22 | comment | added | gnasher729 | The real bummer in your argument is that you read the words of a mathematical theorem and assume a meaning that isn't there. "Every set can be well ordered" does NOT mean "for every set there is a being which can well-order the set". | |
| Jul 22, 2015 at 6:19 | comment | added | gnasher729 | The real numbers can be well ordered - the "<" relation, used in the definition of the real numbers, well-orders them. There is no god needed for the well-ordering, so that argument completely falls apart. | |
| May 23, 2014 at 14:52 | comment | added | J. C. Salomon | Euler’s proof: (a+bⁿ)/n = x, hence God exists. | |
| May 6, 2012 at 1:23 | comment | added | Joseph Weissman♦ | Voting to close for the time being pending some cleanup and clarification of the concern. Keep in mind great questions are self-contained, and ask about some really specific problem encountered during your study of philosophy. Please consider using the edit functionality to revise your post. | |
| May 6, 2012 at 1:21 | history | closed | Joseph Weissman♦ | not a real question | |
| May 5, 2012 at 13:58 | comment | added | I K Rus | @Cody Gray: Dominus regnabit in infinitum (aeternum) et ultra". God rules in infinity (eternity) and beyond. Cantor took this as a proof for his infinities beyond infinity. But that does not directly touch my question. | |
| May 4, 2012 at 2:41 | comment | added | Cody Gray | Background information like that needs to be in the question; that was sort of the point of the comment. And Latin also needs to be translated into English. (If you don't know the translation, you probably shouldn't be quoting it, since that suggests you don't know what it means.) | |
| May 3, 2012 at 10:03 | comment | added | I K Rus | cont'd: And it is obvious that we must accept a super-human being, if something that no inhabitant of the material universe can do, can be proved to be doable. Whether we call that being God, is a matter of taste. | |
| May 3, 2012 at 10:02 | comment | added | I K Rus | Georg Cantor, the founder of set theory proved the existence of infinite sets by means of the holy bible. He wrote 1883 in a letter to Lipschitz: "Exodus, cap. XV, v. 18, Dominus regnabit in infinitum (aeternum) et ultra". Further evidence for his idea of aktualized or completed infinity, he took from Augustinus: S. Augustin (De civitate Dei. lib. XII, cap. 19): Contra eos, qui dicunt ea, quae infinita sunt, nec Dei posse scientia comprehendi. (letter of 1886). | |
| May 2, 2012 at 19:34 | answer | added | offroff | timeline score: 3 | |
| May 2, 2012 at 15:42 | answer | added | Rex Kerr | timeline score: 3 | |
| May 2, 2012 at 11:58 | history | edited | I K Rus | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| May 1, 2012 at 20:54 | answer | added | Michael Dorfman | timeline score: 7 | |
| May 1, 2012 at 18:35 | answer | added | stoicfury | timeline score: 4 | |
| May 1, 2012 at 17:47 | comment | added | Cody Gray | How in the world does this this contrived set of claims prove the existence of God? What do they even have to do with the idea of a divine being? | |
| May 1, 2012 at 13:14 | history | asked | I K Rus | CC BY-SA 3.0 |