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Does Aristotle ever use a collective nounterm (such as `mode') for ἐντελέχεια and δύναμις?

Does Aristotle ever use a collective noun (such as `mode') for ἐντελέχεια and δύναμις?

Does Aristotle ever use a collective term (such as `mode') for ἐντελέχεια and δύναμις?

Source Link
Toothrot
  • 301
  • 2
  • 7

Aristotelian terminology, dynamis and entelechy

Does Aristotle ever use a collective noun (such as `mode') for ἐντελέχεια and δύναμις?