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Apr 9, 2016 at 17:42 answer added Andres Mejia timeline score: 2
Apr 9, 2016 at 15:36 answer added TakenItEasy timeline score: -2
Mar 3, 2016 at 5:12 comment added 201044 So if one could manipulate , in one's 'mentality' these higher level 'substitutes' that represent various biochemical event sequences then one could 'mentally' cause changes on a biochemical level of description of neural events.
Mar 3, 2016 at 5:07 comment added 201044 What is a 'mental state'? And shouldn't it be described as a mental process? If all the events in the brain are 'physical neural events' or sequences of 'biochemical behavioural process' then then obviously in one's 'mentality' one couldn't control these biochemical events. The only way one could use a conscious- level operating system that 'controls these biochemical events is if there were higher-level processes that somehow represented all the relevant biochemical event sequences. And these higher-level emergent processes could be 'substitutes' for the low level biochemical events.
Nov 27, 2015 at 4:57 history tweeted twitter.com/StackPhilosophy/status/670104011320795140
Nov 23, 2015 at 21:36 comment added Alexander S King @Conifold there's a talk by Daniel Dennett on youtube (I'll have to pull it up later) where he mentions some more recent results. He also keeps hinting that neuroscientists in general are all mistakingly Epiphenomenalists.
Nov 23, 2015 at 20:34 comment added Conifold If by "recent experimental results" you mean Libet 1983 experiments even Libet thought that they are consistent with "conscious veto". Moreover, his assumption that the rise of readiness potential before awareness is what causes flexing of the muscle is also highly questionable. informationphilosopher.com/freedom/libet_experiments.html
Nov 23, 2015 at 20:07 history asked Alexander S King CC BY-SA 3.0