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May 8 at 16:14 answer added user73173 timeline score: 0
May 8 at 15:28 comment added user73173 @PhilipKlöcking Sure, but the ground of Kant's discussion is the distinction between finitary and infinitary proofs, as introduced by Leibniz. Godel himself, when he began studying Leibniz's work, acknowledged that Leibniz anticipated some of his (and other people working on these issues, i.e. Hilbert etc.) ideas. All cosmological antinomies rely on this distinction. There is a link to incompleteness. Did Kant anticipate Godel? Not exactly, but he read Leibniz, who certainly did.
Aug 7, 2020 at 11:21 answer added meir buzaglo timeline score: 0
Sep 8, 2017 at 12:50 comment added user20253 @Krishna Rao If you are an admirer of Gibran's poetry and Sri Ramakrishna Paramhansa then you have left Russell and Wittgenstein far behind, but Godel is another matter. I do not know of an accessible explanation to his work and the reason may be that opinions vary considerably as to its meaning. if you find one please let me know.
Sep 8, 2017 at 12:46 comment added user20253 @Philip Klocking I'd agree with your point, The situation parallels Zeno's paradoxes. The point of pointing out these paradoxes is not to suggest they are obstacles to knowledge but to show how these obstacles can be avoided. This is often missed but it seems unmissable. On the question, I also see a link to Godel but the issues are very tricky. Even mathematicians can't agree on exactly what Incompleteness implies for metaphysics.
Oct 15, 2016 at 14:18 comment added user2953 Welcome to Philosophy.SE! If you have another question, please ask it by clicking the Ask Question button.
Oct 15, 2016 at 11:54 comment added Krishna Rao PUTCHA Q: may i please request an authentic and accessible reference to Goedel's work and that of Bertrand Russell possibly by Russell himself ? is there an accessible reference to Wittgenstein as well, please ? i hesitate to share my untutored thoughts on these serious topics for fear that it might cost me my audience and perhaps my membership as well --- a sad development it would be ! i am an admirer of Kahlil Gibran's poetry and Sri Ramakrishna Paramhansa's religious philosophy and i like to read Russell and Goedel and Wittgenstein from a humanistic point of view --- please help ! --- Krishna Rao
Aug 14, 2016 at 4:26 answer added Mozibur Ullah timeline score: 1
May 18, 2016 at 3:15 history edited Conifold CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 12, 2016 at 9:54 history edited Conifold
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Jan 29, 2016 at 19:04 vote accept Alexander S King
Jan 20, 2016 at 9:50 history tweeted twitter.com/StackPhilosophy/status/689746704694927361
Jan 20, 2016 at 7:07 answer added Jo Wehler timeline score: 2
Jan 20, 2016 at 0:26 history edited Alexander S King CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 20, 2016 at 0:11 comment added Alexander S King @virmaior any other term I can think of "Anticipating","Predicting" pretty much conveys the same meaning. What I am trying to convey is that Kant was giving an intuitive version of an idea that Godel later expresses in a formal way.
Jan 19, 2016 at 23:25 answer added Conifold timeline score: 9
Jan 19, 2016 at 22:32 comment added virmaior I'm not really up to speed on the "foreshadow" relation. Is there a different way to articulate that?
Jan 19, 2016 at 22:26 comment added Nelson Alexander I suppose you could make that comparison, but I don't think there's much to it. Any "redundancy" would be relatively tiny for either work.
Jan 19, 2016 at 21:54 comment added Philip Klöcking The whole point of the antinomies is showing that they are only antinomies if you're not a transcendental idealist and can with the help of it shown to be not contradicting each other. I think there is a misunderstanding regarding the position. Kant does not actually endorse them as antinomous.
Jan 19, 2016 at 21:02 history asked Alexander S King CC BY-SA 3.0