Timeline for Formal versus Objective Reality in Descartes

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when toggle format	what		by	license	comment
Mar 19, 2018 at 8:16	comment	added	Geoffrey Thomas♦		Yes, I think so. Descartes was scornful of Scholastic philosophy yet its language often found its way into his writing and (not his problem of course) is often confusing to modern readers. But you've worked out this problem. It was a good question. You are reading Descartes carefully and critically and taking nothing on spec. Just the right philosophical attitude !
Mar 18, 2018 at 23:09	comment	added	WolandBarthes		This makes sense. So we can differentiate between the idea as a representation of a thing, and the idea as a certain thing which exists in the mind, even though an idea will is in fact both at the same time. We define an idea in both senses, and cannot narrow it down to either; in a way, an idea is kind of like a Rubin vase, being perceivable as a representation or a thing, though it is really both at once.
Mar 18, 2018 at 21:18	history	edited	Geoffrey Thomas♦	CC BY-SA 3.0	Text added for clarification.
Mar 18, 2018 at 20:53	history	edited	Geoffrey Thomas♦	CC BY-SA 3.0	Text added for clarification.
Mar 18, 2018 at 20:46	history	answered	Geoffrey Thomas♦	CC BY-SA 3.0