Parenthesis : Hume's relation to the naturalistic fallacy is a complex matter, not at all straightforward. But the emphasis on 'pre-Enlightenment' indicates an assumption that there was no need to mention Hume in the Question as originally worded indicates an assumption that the Enlightenment could be jumped because Hume, an Age of Enlightenment figure, he so plainly belongs to the naturalistic fallacy's history. But does he ?
