William A. Wallace, O.P., in “Thomism and the Quantum Enigma,” The Thomist 61 (1997): 455–468, claims that
analogical middle terms are sufficient for a valid demonstration
and that this is
a teaching that is distinctive of Thomism
that other Scholastic schools do not uphold.
How would one justify that "analogical middle terms are sufficient for a valid demonstration"?
(cf. this on "mixed sciences" or scientia media and this answer here)