The Barber Paradox is given as: "In a village, there is a male barber who shaves only those who do not shave themselves. The question is: Does the barber shave himself?".
But, here is the problem: the barber himself is undeniably a man. Put simply, the same entity is referred to by two distinct identities: man and barber.
Can't we conclude, then, that the man, who happens also to be the barber, shaves himself? In other words, the barber does not shave himself, but the man, who happens to be a barber, shaves himself?
This interpretation resolves the paradox by recognising the dual identity of the man as both a barber and a man. What is wrong with this explanation?