Having read Kant's Critique of Pure Reason, and in fact just finishing a second read after some time, I've been trying to develop a suitable "worldview" about the structure of the mind.
I believe I am something of a subjective idealist when it comes to the world generally, and this is due to my inability to fully disconnect empirical from a priori experiences.
But am justified in that?
From various sources (Husserl, Levinas, etc) we find that "consciousness is consciousness of something". So, when it comes to a priori thinking (intuitions, knowledge, etc), I fail to understand how such an entity can be fully "pure". (Reflecting, I daresay Kant himself does not mention pure a prior entities).
I see it as this: A priori and a posteriori entities exist as 'gradations' against each other, wherein an empirical object can never truly be distinct from a mind, and likewise an a prior intuition (say) can never truly be distinct from a body.
Having said that, I think I can grasp a little of Transcendental Idealism, in the sense in which objects can exist within themselves, albeit distinct from experience (do I have that right?).
In short, the question is as the heading.