In an excellent answer to a question about the history of material implication, @Bumble notes:
Unfortunately, the word ‘implies’ is ambiguous between these meanings. In particular, mathematicians are often taught to call the material conditional material implication and to read A → B as "A implies B". This is potentially misleading, because it leads to confusing the connective with the entailment relation.
I wonder if this mix-up of logical connective (in the object-language) and entailment relation (in the meta-language) is more of a concern for logicians than for mathematicians? I'm not denying that mathematicians may sometimes be pretty sloppy about this (see Bumble's post for references), but I wonder, if for an intuitionist mathematician, -- who might, like Brouwer, even consider logic to be a superfluous and sterile exercise -- and who may see proving a theorem as an essentially non-linguistic, non-formal process that somehow 'precedes' logic, this is an important mix-up? How do the formalisations of intuitionist mathematical logic represent or deal with the distinction between the conditional connective and the entailment relation (assuming they make a distinction)? Are there important differences with non-intuitionist interpretations?