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If I want to argue that hypothesis ๐ด is more plausible (i.e., more worthy of credence) than hypothesis ๐ต, I could frame this using Bayesian inference given some evidence ๐ธ by showing that ๐‘ƒ(๐ธโˆฃ๐ด)โ‹…๐‘ƒ(๐ด) > ๐‘ƒ(๐ธโˆฃ๐ต)โ‹…๐‘ƒ(๐ต).

There are, however, several points worth noting:

  • This approach relies on probabilities, effectively reducing the concept of plausibility to that of probability.
  • The comparison depends on prior probabilities ๐‘ƒ(๐ด) and ๐‘ƒ(๐ต), which can feel recursive because it seems to assume we already have an idea of which hypothesis seems more plausible to us before considering the evidence, but the whole point of the exercise is to calculate plausibility in the first place.
  • Additionally, applying probabilities in certain contexts can seem problematic or out of place, particularly in domains where we lack the ability to develop statistics to validate whether the real world aligns with our probability estimates. For instance, when evaluating the plausibility of competing metaphysical worldviews (see related question), we lack a "metaphysical simulator" to generate frequencies for how often worldview ๐ด versus ๐ต might be true.

This raises the question: are there situations in which plausibility carries a meaning that cannot be fully captured by or reduced to the concept of probability? If so, how do philosophers suggest arguing for plausibility without relying on probabilities?

Or am I overthinking this, and plausibility and probability are essentially interchangeable concepts?


Closely related questions:

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  • @Lowri I'm not asking how imagination plays a role in the prior of Bayesian inference. I'm asking about the conceptual difference between probability and plausibility.
    – user80226
    Commented Nov 26 at 19:19
  • 2
    The question is raised, but to what end?
    – Scott Rowe
    Commented Nov 26 at 19:34
  • @user80226 now you know how it feels like when people here accuse you of posing duplicates when itโ€™s not really a duplicate, and theyโ€™re lazily just finding anything remotely similar to your question to try to shut it down ;)
    – Syed
    Commented Nov 26 at 19:52
  • 1
    In my usage, plausible means not-unlikely; probable means likely. What confidence threshhold consitutes "likely" varies from case to case. But this is a linguistic answer, not a philosophy answer.
    – keshlam
    Commented Nov 26 at 19:56
  • Well, mission accomplished. I was going to say, the only person I know who casually used the word 'plausible' was a Lawyer. He also used 'liable to' to mean "having a tendency to". But, you have asked lots of fairly well-received questions.
    – Scott Rowe
    Commented Nov 26 at 22:34

1 Answer 1

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There is an entire section on the SEP where they discuss various different approaches to model uncertainty and inferences under certainty. In the mapping listed, probability is a form of plausibility relation. It is a way to try to capture what is plausible using mathematical figures. As such, plausibility is arguably more fundamental than probability.

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This can be practically seen in the area of theory choice. Scientists regularly choose between theories by virtue of epistemic values such as explanatory scope, explanatory power, simplicity, etc. They do this without attaching Bayesian probabilities to different hypotheses. See this article here for more on this.

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  • A conceptual gap in your answer is that you haven't successfully established an explicit link between the diagram in the first linked SEP article (which I edited into your answer for convenience) and the epistemic values in your second linked SEP article. The first article never mentions epistemic values. Can you please clarify?
    – user80226
    Commented Nov 26 at 19:24
  • More concretely, do epistemic values fall under "Ranking Functions", "Possibility Functions (Fuzzy Logic)", "Probability Functions", "Qualitative Probability Relations", or what? And why?
    – user80226
    Commented Nov 26 at 19:26

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