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If laws merely describe things in the world, then it seems that there is no reason for a particular object to behave according to a particular law the next moment.

If laws govern/order/command reality in some way or if there is something inherent to an object (lets call it a “power”) that governs how the object behaves according to a law, we now have an explanation for why an object continues to move or behave according to a certain pattern.

Does this mean that if laws or these lawlike causal powers are actually doing things or causing things rather than being merely descriptive, there is an explanatory advantage to the former?

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    If only we could give stuff greater power by thinking this or that. But alas, us thinking this or that does not make it so or explain anything. Unless, of course, you have in mind the power of positive thinking, but that is something psychologists would know more about.
    – Conifold
    Commented 10 hours ago
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    Humean, all too Humean...
    – Philomath
    Commented 10 hours ago
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    Indeed in a sense if natural laws are prescriptive like social laws as they were originally named after, they can have causal power unlike Humean mere constant associations. In terms of counterfactual possible world semantics, had natural laws been prescribed structurally differently in a PW, it would have a different descriptive effect, yet the totality of the multiverse Platonic possible worlds are always there... Commented 10 hours ago
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    Relevant
    – user80226
    Commented 10 hours ago
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    @Syed There are different definitions for things - that doesn't mean someone is "misunderstanding", unless they are interpreting something someone said by using a definition that doesn't match what that person meant... which is what you were doing. Although you removed that misinterpretation from your question, so I deleted my earlier comment, as it's no longer applicable.
    – NotThatGuy
    Commented 4 hours ago

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You are confusing how things are with how we think about them. Nature does not behave as it does because we have identified various so-called laws. Yes there are some underlying factors at play that cause a particular object to continue to appear to obey the laws we have identified, but most of the time we define laws that are purely descriptive, and do not address the cause of the behaviour described. Take Hooke's law, which describes the relationship between an applied force and the change in length of a spring- springs don't behave as they do because of Hooke's law, and the actual factors at play are vastly more complicated. Or take Fleming's left hand rule- wires carrying currents do not react to magnetic fields in a certain way because some Victorian engineer specified they must take note of the orientation of his digits.

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  • You seem to be just asserting that laws are mere descriptions. Why do you think this?
    – Syed
    Commented 7 hours ago
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    You are completely missing my point. I am saying there are factors that govern the way the Universe works, and if you like you can think of them as laws. However, they are not to be confused with our attempts at describing how the Universe works, which is what we also call laws. The two are fundamentally different but you are confusing them. Commented 5 hours ago
  • My question is in the former interpretation. When philosophers say that the laws of nature are only descriptions, they also mean that there is nothing in nature that follows those laws or that those laws govern nature.
    – Syed
    Commented 4 hours ago
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    You seem to be arguing with people at cross purposes. Of course there are factors that determine how the universe works. Let's call them fundamental laws, or flaws. Then there are our attempts at explaining how the universe works, which we call laws. Can't you see the difference between flaws and laws? Laws are inaccurate and subject to change as our understanding improves, while the flaws remain what they are. Flaws were there before humans came along, while laws are invented by humans... Commented 3 hours ago
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    ...we used to talk about Newton's law of gravity, and now we talk about curved 4-d spacetime, and I'm guessing that some day we will have some other explanation that supersedes both of them. Commented 3 hours ago
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Well, yes of course. If nature has to follow the "laws of nature" that we write down, we could perfectly predict it. By definition.

That doesn’t change that what we call "laws of nature" are models based on observations and thus descriptive. The "laws of nature" are in textbooks because that is where we put our descriptions from observations. Now, there might be some truly fundamental rules that actually govern nature, but all we can do is observe and try to describe them.

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    @Syed The is no way for "observing that certain things follow unbreakable patterns" strictly. We can only observe what happens here and now. Even if we had an absolutely accurate description of nature today, it carries no guarantee for tomorrow. "Evidence" is not proof. Commented 6 hours ago
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    @Syed All evidence for how nature works is from observation of nature… Commented 6 hours ago
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    @Syed Well, the comment you just made, saying that only being able to observe nature seemed to imply that we can’t actually gather evidence about it regularities… kinda seemed to deny that. Commented 6 hours ago
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    @Syed You keep shifting the goalposts. My answer does say that "we are powerless in terms of actually finding out whether nature inherently obeys laws" - strictly. That is not at odds with finding evidence whether nature inherently obeys laws. Evidence is just that, evidence. It can let you build very accurate models with high confidence, but it does not let us actually find out things to the standard of inherent laws of nature. Commented 5 hours ago
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    @Syed This is all just semantic discussion at this point, but your approach is still overall misleading in my eyes since semantic precision is needed for the kind of thing you asked about. I recommend you focus less on imaginary implications and rather on what has actually been written (to which I am happy to make changes should it actually contain inherent errors). Commented 4 hours ago
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If there are natural laws causing the universe to behave regularly, then those laws would explain why the universe behaves regularly. However, this would leave unexplained why there are natural laws in the first place. One option is to postulate these laws as brute facts. Alternatively, theists might argue that God designed the laws, but in that case, God would be the brute fact, and so on.

If there are no natural laws causing the universe to behave regularly, then the scientific or physical laws we typically refer to are simply efficient descriptions developed by humans to describe the apparent regularity of the universe. In this case, there would be nothing inherently forcing the universe to behave regularly in the first place. The fact that the universe seems to behave regularly would itself be a brute fact. Perhaps the universe will stop behaving regularly tomorrow, and if so, that too would be a brute fact. (See also: If the laws of nature are not metaphysically fundamental, what alternative explanations could account for the regularities observed in nature?)

Which hypothesis has more explanatory power? They all seem to predict essentially the same outcomes. If the universe continues to behave regularly, there is no way to determine which hypothesis is correct. However, if "miracles" are real, that might falsify the "laws of nature as fundamental" hypothesis and align with either God is real or laws are mere descriptions, and the universe can do whatever it wants.

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  • How do they have the same explanatory power? The hypothesis that laws are merely human constructed descriptions of reality tells me nothing about where the ball will bounce when I drop it. The hypothesis that laws govern the universe does.
    – Syed
    Commented 6 hours ago
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    @Syed They have the same explanatory power if you just assume that the happy coincidence of regularity will still hold by happy coincidence. If you act as if the happy coincidence will still hold, they are indistinguishable.
    – user80226
    Commented 4 hours ago
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Human derived "laws" of nature are codified descriptions of what nature has been seen to do. They help guide human understanding of nature.

Nature ignores our attempts to understand it and does what it darned well pleases. However, it is consistent enough that we can make reasonable predictions. A dropped rock will fall, and it's fall can be described and predicted. If we find a case where our predictions don't work we change the model so they do.

Does nature have to be reasonably consistent with itself? Gods only know, but in our experience it has been, and if it wasn't it's unclear this reality could exist.

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  • Yes so what explains the consistency of the laws and why many of them remain unbroken tomorrow if laws are just descriptions?
    – Syed
    Commented 7 hours ago
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    You're focusing on the wrong thing. What you want to know, apparently, is why the fundamental forces of nature don't change, or at least didn't change enough on our time scale for us to see those changes. I think the only answer is that this happens to be the universe we are living in.
    – keshlam
    Commented 6 hours ago
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  1. Laws of nature explain the phenomena we observe in nature. Most explanatory power is due to the fact that there are laws at all.

  2. Originally humans considered the laws of nature to be both, prescriptive and descriptive. Examples are in India the concept of “dharma” and in Europe Anaximander’s philosophy of nature.

    Experience shows that social laws can be broken while laws of nature hold without exception – otherwise research continues until improved laws hold without these exceptions.

  3. The current view: Laws of nature describe a behaviour, they explain. While social laws demand a certain conduct, they prescribe.

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Is there greater explanatory power in laws governing things rather than being descriptive?

Of course, and the body of the question seems to recognize this. The latter kind of law provides for prediction, but no real explanation. The former provides explanation, albeit a somewhat unsatisfactory one, to wit: it is a characteristic of the universe, as it is today, that things behave according to such-and-such law. Of course, that does beg the metaphysical question of why the universe has that characteristic.

The question is moot, however, because we have no tools for discovering such governing natural laws. Our best tools and methods for exploring how the natural world works -- scientific ones -- are fundamentally built for and around interpreting our observations, thus they produce descriptive principles.

Scientists do generally work under the assumption that the perceived regularities of our universe are indeed grounded in fundamental natural characteristics. They do generally suppose that the scientific method is effective for discovering better and better approximations to those underlying natural laws. That seems to have been working well for centuries. But scientific "laws" are a predictive codification of observations, not to be confused with the true underlying characteristics of the natural universe. If ever we do come up with a scientific law that happens to exactly match a natural law, we have no way to recognize that we have done so.

Sometimes, a scientist will express that such and such scientific law / principle explains a given observation. This is pretty common, in fact. But such a claim should be taken as code for the observation being consistent with said law / principle, or else the claim should be taken as contingent on the law / principle being a close enough approximation to a true characteristic of the natural universe, or both. And that's ok.

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