Was Kant successful in establishing the autonomy of the will, and hence the authority of moral demands over us?
Kant appeared not to recognize the gap existing between the law of an autonomous rational will and the CI. He also stated that it is simply a ‘fact of reason’ (Factum der Vernunft) that our wills are bound by the CI, and used this to argue that our wills are autonomous.
Is it beyond his scope to argue for the autonomy of the will? Surely this is central to his account of moral behaviour. How might this problematise his account? Thanks.