I'm a student of philosophy carefully reading through the Britannica Great Books series. In our homeschool discussions, occurring each Wednesday afternoon, I'm finding most of the questions challenging but too difficult. My teacher says not to be put off by my youth, but to persist through to an answer. Also, not much is found on the Web concerning many of the authors in the Great Books series. A good example is Nicomachus of Gerasa. These writers are so obscure (most of the time) that all I can say (some of the time) is, "What the..." But, I'm not supposed to say that.
A scholar no less than the William Smith, L.L.D. (Smith's Bible Dictionary, London: J. Murray, 1863; Revised Edition: ...Compiled from Dr. William Smith's Dictionary of the Bible, n.d., ISBN 0-87981-033-5, s.v.: "Epicureans," p. 95) stated: "The teaching of the Hebrew patriarchs and prophets was independent of any system of philosophy, and it is curious that Greek philosophy arose just after the Hebrew prophets closed their oracles, Malachi being contemporary with Socrates." After Malachi, there was a 500-year hiatus to the New Testament. This was known as the period of the Talmudists (to 70 A.D.). So, there was plenty of time for influence of Classical Greek philosophy. I strongly suspect this is exactly the case. Unfortunately no modern thesis materials or dissertations exist on this significant subject. No university will allow investigation. Perhaps something written during the Victorian period might exist. But, so far, my research has produced very little other than the Smith quote which may go back to an edited version of his original text (1863). The lack of information regarding the obvious Hebrew literary influence of Classical Greek philosophy and perhaps also early Greek poetry (theogonies) and the vernacular narratives (popular Greek myth) preceding Socrates, Plato, and Aristotle is by-itself much more than curious. It is my estimation that the flow of history goes something like this: (minimally) Indian, Chaldean, Canaanite, Egyptian Hebrew (revelationally), Greek, Roman, European (maximally). And, we are told in public school we can't be Juedeo-Christian or "Eurocentric" because such is "offensive"?
Hmm considering the obvious effect Joseph Moses Joshua Solomon and Daniel had on the world in thier days it would be pretty illogical to assume their faith didnt effect Greek philosiphy.
Joseph was second in command in the first world empire, he litterally OWNED the entire world for probably close to a hundred years.
Moses toppled that same empire 400 years later in a series of apocoliptic catastrophies that would have been the biggest event in world political and economic history.
Joshuas expulsión of the Giants resulted in a second untold catastrophy of Giants wreaking unimagible havoc on the entire world. Read ancient Europian history.
Solomons religious, informacion and trade connections were the result of being married to 1,000 women.at least 300 of them were princesses, with him being the richest and wisest man who ever lived. He has to have been the most influential philisopical and religious figure in world history besides Jesus Christ himself.
Daniel held the highest position with Four monarcs of babel media and persia. Area wise these empires represnt a politcal economic ideology system that probably excceeds the Roman empire.
Everybody Knows Greek philosiphy is a mixture of the religions of all the cultures ive mentioned and that The Isrealites religion was the primary influence on them before that so go figure.
Homer and Socrates , as well as confucius and buddah would have been reading Moses and Solomon before they wrote anything of their own.
I dont mean that sarcasticly, due to the influence of Moses and Solomon, there is evidence of Jewish and mazdean influence even in ancient China, and their influence on Indian philosiphy is more evident than it is on Greek philosiphy.