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I'm a student of philosophy carefully reading through the Britannica Great Books series. In our homeschool discussions, occurring each Wednesday afternoon, I'm finding most of the questions challenging but too difficult. My teacher says not to be put off by my youth, but to persist through to an answer. Also, not much is found on the Web concerning many of the authors in the Great Books series. A good example is Nicomachus of Gerasa. These writers are so obscure (most of the time) that all I can say (some of the time) is, "What the..." But, I'm not supposed to say that.

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    In all likelihood, no. For one thing, much of the scripture hadn't been written yet. For another, the Greek Jewish cultures don't appear to have encountered each other until sometime in the late 4th century BC, with Plato long dead and Aristotle at best an old man but probably dead too. – David H Oct 10 '14 at 21:31
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    This question appears to be off-topic. – Hunan Rostomyan Oct 11 '14 at 1:32
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    I'd like to see some evidence in your question as to Plato's and Aristotle's use of Indian writings. – Drux Oct 11 '14 at 19:15
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    Swami Vivekananda in the 19th century said that the Greek philosophers were influenced by the Indian philosopher Kapila. But I have never run across any real evidence and any evidence appears anecdotal. – Swami Vishwananda Oct 15 '14 at 10:28
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    I think it is extremely important to note that there zero evidence of ancient greek philosophers making use of writings of India. The arguments make e.g. by N. Kazanas discuss common indo-european origins of particular mythemes (to use Levi-Strauss's term), not some direct contact between these cultures. The travel of thought and ideas is very distinct from written traces. That latter is much more easily verifiable and we do not have traces of that sort of thing. – ClearMountainWay Mar 24 '17 at 18:47
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A scholar no less than the William Smith, L.L.D. (Smith's Bible Dictionary, London: J. Murray, 1863; Revised Edition: ...Compiled from Dr. William Smith's Dictionary of the Bible, n.d., ISBN 0-87981-033-5, s.v.: "Epicureans," p. 95) stated: "The teaching of the Hebrew patriarchs and prophets was independent of any system of philosophy, and it is curious that Greek philosophy arose just after the Hebrew prophets closed their oracles, Malachi being contemporary with Socrates." After Malachi, there was a 500-year hiatus to the New Testament. This was known as the period of the Talmudists (to 70 A.D.). So, there was plenty of time for influence of Classical Greek philosophy. I strongly suspect this is exactly the case. Unfortunately no modern thesis materials or dissertations exist on this significant subject. No university will allow investigation. Perhaps something written during the Victorian period might exist. But, so far, my research has produced very little other than the Smith quote which may go back to an edited version of his original text (1863). The lack of information regarding the obvious Hebrew literary influence of Classical Greek philosophy and perhaps also early Greek poetry (theogonies) and the vernacular narratives (popular Greek myth) preceding Socrates, Plato, and Aristotle is by-itself much more than curious. It is my estimation that the flow of history goes something like this: (minimally) Indian, Chaldean, Canaanite, Egyptian Hebrew (revelationally), Greek, Roman, European (maximally). And, we are told in public school we can't be Juedeo-Christian or "Eurocentric" because such is "offensive"?

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    Perhaps you need a 'broader' education. I'd say you are a little too comfortable with yourself. – Darcy Davis Oct 28 '14 at 18:31
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    I don't and can't claim to know everything. But I do do philosophy for a living, and I've never heard of William Smith. And the quote isn't really saying much... Why should we take him to be an authority? – virmaior Oct 28 '14 at 22:45
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    Nice try, @Joseph. But it's just "William Smith" not the orientalist, W. Robertson Smith. However, both were Victorians. I love that period in Western history. The complete reference (I apologize to for not listing the citation at first post) is: William Smith, L.L.D. (Smith's Bible Dictionary, London: J. Murray, 1863; Revised Edition: ...Compiled from Dr. William Smith's Dictionary of the Bible, n.d., ISBN 0-87981-033-5, s.v.: "Epicureans," p. 95). – Darcy Davis Nov 13 '14 at 21:02
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    Consider what grounds you have for this comment of yours: "No university will allow investigation." I work at a university, and some of my colleagues work on topics very close to this, and if I wanted to spend the next 10 years researching nothing but this topic, I could do that. – ChristopherE Dec 14 '14 at 5:09
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    @ChristoherE: ...If you might think you can research this important topic do so. In my readings from a number of college and university libraries, accessible through WorldCat.org, I've found this subject completely present by absence. Influences on Plato from India and Egypt, yes. But, heaven forbid the Jews. Nothing on early Greek philosophy historically influenced by historic Jewish teaching exists. If you have a source, list it here. I'll be glad to look at it. – Darcy Davis Dec 15 '14 at 20:50
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Hmm considering the obvious effect Joseph Moses Joshua Solomon and Daniel had on the world in thier days it would be pretty illogical to assume their faith didnt effect Greek philosiphy.

Joseph was second in command in the first world empire, he litterally OWNED the entire world for probably close to a hundred years.

Moses toppled that same empire 400 years later in a series of apocoliptic catastrophies that would have been the biggest event in world political and economic history.

Joshuas expulsión of the Giants resulted in a second untold catastrophy of Giants wreaking unimagible havoc on the entire world. Read ancient Europian history.

Solomons religious, informacion and trade connections were the result of being married to 1,000 women.at least 300 of them were princesses, with him being the richest and wisest man who ever lived. He has to have been the most influential philisopical and religious figure in world history besides Jesus Christ himself.

Daniel held the highest position with Four monarcs of babel media and persia. Area wise these empires represnt a politcal economic ideology system that probably excceeds the Roman empire.

Everybody Knows Greek philosiphy is a mixture of the religions of all the cultures ive mentioned and that The Isrealites religion was the primary influence on them before that so go figure.

Homer and Socrates , as well as confucius and buddah would have been reading Moses and Solomon before they wrote anything of their own.

I dont mean that sarcasticly, due to the influence of Moses and Solomon, there is evidence of Jewish and mazdean influence even in ancient China, and their influence on Indian philosiphy is more evident than it is on Greek philosiphy.

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