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Source: Sec 32, The Second Treatise of Civil Government, 1690, by John Locke

As much land as a man tills, plants, improves, cultivates, and can use the product of, so much is his property. He by his labour does, as it were, inclose it from the common.

Should there be a noun after so much? 'so much [OF WHAT] is his property' ?

Footnote: I encountered this excerpt at the 11 mins 7 s juncture of Justice: What's The Right Thing To Do?, Episode 04: "THIS LAND IS MY LAND"

closed as off-topic by Swami Vishwananda, prash, iphigenie, James Kingsbery, Five σ Mar 25 '15 at 17:31

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No. This is an old-fashioned, fancy way of saying

A man has as much property as he tills, plants, improves, cultivates, and can use the product of land.

Or, freer, interpreting:

A man owns the land he tills, plants, improves, cultivates, and can use the product of.

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