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1 John 4:19 , "so you see, our love for Him comes as a result of His loving us first."

Does the above Biblical Scripture imply through Modus Tollens what I think it does? That is, If God loved us first, then we love Him. But if we don't love Him (let's say were atheists), then He never previously loved us?

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There is no modus tollens here. Your interpretation

If God loved us first, then we love Him.

is not what's written there. The verse consists of a statement/claim/fact ("We love") and an explanation ("because He loved us first").

Also, the "we love" is not about us loving God. It's about us loving each other (1 Jn 4:7; "Beloved, let us love one another, for love is from God, ..."). So your claim

But if we don't love Him (let's say were atheists), then He never previously loved us?

doesn't hold against this passage.

Of course, it is commonly said that we find God through others, and that love for God is love for one another and vice versa. But this can be interpreted as "If you love one another, you automatically love and know God" (compare 1 Jn 4:8; "Anyone who does not love does not know God, because God is love").

You can see that there is no modus tollens here in the Greek:

Ἡμεῖς ἀγαπῶμεν, ὅτι αὐτὸς πρῶτος ἠγάπησεν ἡμᾶς.

Ἡμεῖς         We
ἀγαπῶμεν      love (praesens; hence a statement)
ὅτι           because
αὐτὸς         he
πρῶτος        first
ἠγάπησεν      loved
ἡμᾶς          us
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I interpret that statement formally as:

If we love God, then it is because God loves us first

From that point of view "We don't love God" does not imply that God does not love us.

Most theologians I've read have said something like that our love of God requires us to allow it (that is, we exercise free will in the matter), and so our lack of love of God is despite the fact that God already loves us, not because God doesn't love us.

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