Here is my reasoning to the conclusion of "existence is distinguishability/variation":
Assume objects A and B.
Question 1: How are they different from each other?
Answer 1: They are different/distinguishable in at least one way therefore we know that they definitely exist. Conclusion: 2 objects exist.
Answer 2: They aren't different/distinguishable in any way therefore there is either one object or none.
Question 2: Is there an object?
Answer 1: Yes there is because we can distinguish it/percieve it directly or indirectly in at least one way. Conclusion: There is one object.
Answer 2: We can't distinguish it/percieve it directly or indirectly therefore there are no objects. From this we can deduct that distinguishability=existence relative to an observer.
My question is this: Is my reasoning wrong/have I made a fallacy somewhere and what are the counter arguments?