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I am currently reading a paper and the following statement is used:

Fact "A" for individual i happens if and only if condition B is fulfilled for i possibly not, though not necessarily exclusive of, j.

What does this mean? (speficially,the not, though not part)

Thats exactly how its written; I only removed the technicalities. I do not know if it concerns modal logic or if its a typo, but I never came around such statement.

Thanks.

closed as unclear what you're asking by Keelan, Swami Vishwananda, virmaior Jul 25 '15 at 4:56

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  • What exactly is your question? And by technicalities do you mean you replaced actual words with "Fact A", "individual i", etc? – wahwahwah Jul 21 '15 at 21:48
  • I was following until " possibly not, though not necessarily exclusive of, j." – hellyale Jul 21 '15 at 23:56
  • Backing up before understanding the sentence - I'm not sure how to parse that grammatically. – James Kingsbery Jul 22 '15 at 15:11
  • @Marcelo can you show us more context around that quote? As written, it's not well-formed English. – virmaior Jul 25 '15 at 4:55
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It looks like the paper has created two people named 'i' and 'j', and that caused the confusion. If I substitute Alice and Bob into that I get

Fact "A" for Alice happens if and only if condition B is fulfilled for Alice possible not, but not necessarily exclusive of Bob."

That's getting better, but I'd reword it as

Fact "A" for Alice happens if and only if condition B is fulfilled for Alice. This is independent of any other observer: Fact "A" can happen for Alice, even if condition B does not happen for Bob.

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