The question is perhaps ill-defined. Human "freedom" entails our human ability to observe, record, and reiterate physical-causal laws from which we, as "the observers," become independent.
To observe and experimentally control "laws" of psycho-behavioral causation can be seen at the scientific and social levels as "freedom" from those very laws. We assume the higher freedom of "forming" and "altering" human behaviors previously constrained by nature, instinct, or unexamined habit. This conforms to the philosophical maxim: "know thyself."
Obviously, this is also a description of "inculturation," and we do it all the time in advertising, education, ideology, albeit less consciously. As "science" such knowledge of behavioral function should be, in theory, public, observable, and accessible to all. As "technology" the moral question becomes whether or not such techniques are used coercively and transparently, and whether or not subjects are treated, in Kant terms, as "means" or as "ends."
I do not see that behavioral technologies are necessarily inimical to Kant's "Kingdom of Ends." They produce new powers and possibilities for collective freedom, as well as new powers and possibilities for the suppression of individual freedom or expansion of class domination. The moral question lies elsewhere.
It lies in the treatment of individuals as means or as ends, and in the relations of technology to class domination. This is not to mention that any crude appeal to freedom as "authenticity" or "natural right" may already be moot in mass societies of nervous systems integrated through the behavioral "reality" of television.