I recall reading somewhere, now forgotten, that Plato in one of his books suggested that the reason for order in the universe is that meaning can happen - there can be no possibility of meaning where there is no order.

Is my recollection correct? An explicit reference would be useful.

  • Timaeus somewhere early in the exposition (28-52), perhaps: one has to guess what could be the original paraphrased as "that meaning can happen" (which is rather 'ungreek').
    – sand1
    Nov 10, 2017 at 20:55

1 Answer 1


The idea you start with is : (1) 'If no meaning then no order'. But the sense of the sentence after the hyphen is : (2) 'If no order then no meaning'. (2) doesn't explicate (1).

  • This is more of a comment than an answer.
    – philosodad
    Nov 11, 2017 at 4:07
  • I agree that it is a comment but if the comment is correct the question breaks down because the statements on either side of the hyphen are, I assume, taken to be equivalent. The second amplies the first or follows from it or some such. My comment explains that this is not the case. Does it not then 'point out a problem in the post' ?
    – Geoffrey Thomas
    Nov 11, 2017 at 21:29
  • I agree it is a comment but I didn't know I had the status to use the comment facility. Please ignore first response - talk of equivalence was not appropriate.
    – Geoffrey Thomas
    Nov 11, 2017 at 21:52

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