Or is it still a NTS fallacy if, instead of the original assertion being modified, it already contains provisions for rejecting falsifications as incorrectly run experiments?
If "true Scotsman" is in the assertion from the beginning, rather than added in response to a counterexample?
[edit: example given as demanded]
Person 1: "No Cristian would rape a woman"
Person 2: Well, the news last evening...
Person 1: "He's not a true Christian"
Person 1: "No true Cristian would rape a woman"
The question: If Situation 1 is a case of NTS, is Situation 2, also?
Without delving into definitions and unknowable thoughts of Person 1, the consensus here is be "no". Thank you.