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I have been asked to explain that two different formulation which Kant gives of universalizability test and how they might lead to different evaluations of a single action based on particular maxim. However, I am having hard time to find these two formulation. So what are these formulations and in which book Kant mentioned about it?

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    Welcome to Philosophy.SE! Do you mean the two formulations of the categorical imperative? (See e.g. philosophy.stackexchange.com/q/2587/2953). – Keelan Nov 26 '15 at 21:34
  • Well I thought the same thing and write an essay about distinction between Kant's formula of universal law and humanity but teachers said that I have answered completely different question. According to him I should explain two different universalizability formula which mentioned in Critique of Practical Reason. – Samet Nov 26 '15 at 22:08
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As this is a homework question, I will only give hints without giving you the pages or quotes as extracting the forms would be trivial then.

You mentioned the Critique of Practical Reason in your comment. That is the deciding hint. There is the fundamtental law of morals more at the beginning and then a type of it, as he says, later on which he says to be needed because we would have no scheme to apply the former directly, but would implicitly always apply the latter. This is a point where he directly contradicts GMM, by the way.

Because the latter has a specific notion of law, it is worth discussing wether it has the same mode of universalization.

  • Does he mentions this in Chapter 1? It would be beneficial for me to focus on some point in order to get my essay done. – Samet Nov 27 '15 at 18:43
  • First chapter, paragraph 7 and Analytic, second principal part, something like typology of pure practical reason – Philip Klöcking Nov 27 '15 at 22:36

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