Background (not looking to get into the weeds on this; just clarifying my viewpoint): It seems to me that the concept of a moral force or law is not really empirically supported. That is, statements like "it is wrong to kill" are only enforceable from a consequentialist standpoint.
Further, it seems to me that actors are motivated only by the way the environment (including their own emotions) responds to their actions. As a result, there is really no such thing as good or bad action. There is only the sequence of events that arise from each actor in a system creating actions that they believe will maximize their neurological reward factors.
This starts to sound like Objectivism. I am new to Ayn Rand, so I'm curious if somebody with some real knowledge can answer this for me.
Was Rand's Objectivism motivated by a purely empirical conception of how things "ought to be"? Or, did Rand believe that there was some extrinsic moral force that gave her ideas a real property of being "good" beyond the maximization of individual happiness? I think I might agree pretty strongly with Rand, but only if she sought Objectivist government out of a purely selfish belief that these policies would benefit her. Did she believe that Objectivism was a solution to some kind of universally-imposed problem of good action? If so, what did she (or any of her followers on here =]) view as the origin of that problem?