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In his work, John Harsanyi appears to have taken issue with classical social theorists' account of social phenomena. For example, he criticized Max Weber's typological approach on the grounds, "If we make our motivational assumptions complicated enough, we can explain any kind of behaviour." If we grant that self-interest is only one of the motivations for rational decision making, then how can rational choice theorists like Harsanyi claim to explain (or describe) social action using their stripped down version of rationality?

  • Keelan - Please read the question above. It is only one question. I deleted the other one because I am re-posting it as two questions as you suggested in your comment to the other one. And, the questions are revised. – WZS Dec 29 '15 at 13:53
  • Keelan - Look at the edit log. It is not the same text as the original question. I revised it a minute ago and then deleted it because it was a different question. Look at the original one which had two questions. Your comment above is for that one. – WZS Dec 29 '15 at 13:55
  • Fair enough. Apologies. Although next time, there's no need to delete the old question. – Keelan Dec 29 '15 at 13:57

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