0

I'm re-reading Aristotle's Prior Analytics in which he expounds his syllogistic. In the text, instead of writing "All A is B", he usually writes "B is predicated of all A" or "B applies to all A" or "B belongs to all A". Having studied two semesters of ancient Greek many years ago, I'm afraid I have forgotten almost everything. Does anyone know the original Greek expressions for "is predicated of", "applies to" and "belongs to"? Any further grammatical explanations would be appreciated. Many thanks.

migrated from linguistics.stackexchange.com Jan 5 '16 at 16:38

This question came from our site for professional linguists and others with an interest in linguistic research and theory.

1

Regarding Aristotle's terminology in general, see Aristotle's Logic.

Regarding your question :

in An.Pr. the sentences are always composed of two nouns and the copula “belongs to” (huparchein).

See An.Pr.Book A, 24a15-21 :

I call belonging 'to every' or 'to none' universal; I call belonging 'to some,' 'not to some,' or 'not to every,' particular, [...].

Also "applies" (see 26a33-35) is ὑπάρχει.


Regarding "predication" : katêgorein (verb); katêegoroumenon (“what is predicated”).

  • Thanks Mauro, do you know also the original Greek expressions for "is predicated of" (e.g., An.Pr. Book A, 25b37-40) and "applies to" (e.g., An.Pr. Book A, 26a33-35)? – stacker Jan 6 '16 at 4:44
  • You've been of great help, thanks again, two thumbs up! – stacker Jan 6 '16 at 12:22

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.