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Kant proves the limits of human reason by providing 4 antinomies, pairs of rational but contradictory statements, which he claims pure reason can never help us decide which one of the pair is correct.

But for his idea to hold, shouldn't it be shown that the antinomies are contradictions or paradox in formal logic, not just colloquially? Is there a chance that they can be dissolved upon formal logical analysis? Has anyone tried to formalize Kant's antinomies?

  • I suppose that Kant's antinomies can be formalized. Because I remember a similar enterprise: Gödel formalized the ontological proof of Anselm from Canterbury. But apparently, Gödel's formalization did not evoke much interest. – Jo Wehler Jan 20 '16 at 7:25
  • Having reviewed the time antinomy, it seems to be based on two premises "built in" to our human faculties/reasoning: 1) that infinities can never be completed, and 2) any "point in time" when considered locally necessarily has points in time preceding it ("what came before?" is an answerable question regarding any point in time). By #1 there must be a beginning point of time finitely in the past because an infinity of time could not have been completed before the evidently-existing now. By #2, there must have been time before any such supposed "beginning point". Not sure how to formalize it. – Jeff Y Jan 20 '16 at 16:21

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