I agree with Alexander King that this is an interesting question... if we ignore the fact that its suppositions have no current basis in physics. In that case, it is also a refined version of an ancient question.
It is, quite simply, the question of apparent natural determinism and apparent human freedom. One hardly knows where to begin! The need to reintroduce some sort of "quantum indeterminacy" into a picture of physical determinacy dates back to Epicurus and his use of the "swerve" to qualify the billiard-ball model of the pure atomists.
In my own view, the most refined philosophical attempt to reconcile physical, Newtonian "laws" with the representation of those "laws" and human "freedom" are Kant's, in which he structures a model based on two different modes of "causality," to put it over-simply.
As to your Laplace Demon, it is a historical oddity, emerging between the Newtonian world and the enlightened "freedom" of the French Revolution, actually shortly thereafter. Laplace did not, as Kant would do, attempt to account for the "outside" privilege of the observer.
Yet he was also a father of probability.So in pursuit of his "demon" he was already attempting to mathematize the incalculable, the indeterminacy assumed by human projective "freedom, the Epicurian "swerve."