According to Wikipedia, Aristotle lived in the fourth century BC and is one of the most influential figures in Western philosophy.
The famous philosophers that deal with Aristotelianism that I am familiar with are from the Middle Ages. Avicenna, Maimonides, Averroes, Thomas Aquinas. It seems that Aristotelianism was popular in that era, around the 10th-13th centuries.
My question is twofold:
- Was Aristotelianism not popular until the Middle Ages? Was it not widely studied or understood before then? I haven't really ever heard of any Aristotelian philosophers that lived before that era.
- If the answer to (1) is no (it was not popular before the Middle Ages), why not? Why did it take so long (over a millennium) for Aristotle's philosophy to catch on?
Side note: I wasn't sure whether to post this question here or over on history.stackexchange.com. If it is inappropriate for this site, would one of the moderators be so kind as to migrate it there, I would be grateful.