1

Sartre states, in his book 'Being and Nothingness' the following:

Therefore there is no priviledged situation...There is no situation in which the given would crush beneath its weight the freedom which constitutes it as such-and that conversely there is no situation in which for-itself would be more than in others.

This quote is preceeded by

If the situation is neither subjective nor objective, this is because it does not constitute a knowledge nor even an affective comprehension of the state of the world by a subject.

Does he mean to say that we are all bound by our knowledge, representation, and understanding of our world, circumstances, and laws which govern the foresaid, and not necessarily by the circumstance itself?

0

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .