Does the following argument involve a fallacy? Or does it not? If you think it does, which might reasonably be construed as the fallacy in this argument?
There are several theories of cyclical time in the literature. Consider this one: ‘The cyclical theory of time claims that each particular state of the universe will, after an enormously long, though finite period of time, occur in exactly the same way in which it has already occurred an infinite number of times in the past. […] In other words, cosmic history may be regarded as an infinite series of identical cycles: what is happening now has happened already an infinite number of times in the past and will happen again an infinite number of times in the future.’
Is there any reason to believe that this theory is false? Probably not. To begin with, its truth is logically possible. Secondly, no evidence can be adduced against this theory: because the cycles are enormously long we have no hope to survive till the next cycle so that we might check whether it is identical to ours or not. These considerations lead one to believe that the theory is true.
(a) denying the antecedent (b) the black and white fallacy (c) ad ignorantiam (appeal to ignorance) (d) no fallacy