We know that every effect begins with a cause. Also, every cause produces an effect (otherwise it wouldn't be a cause because it wouldn't cause anything to happen).
Likewise, we know that every purpose begins with a reason. And even though most deny it, every reason produces a purpose.
Here is an example I'm sure all determinist are familiar with:
"You don't have freewill. Everything has been determined".
You then begin to flap your arms in the air like a mad-man (this seems to be the universal effect that hearing "You have no freewill" causes)
"Why are you flapping your arms?"
Because I wanted to show (CAUSE/REASON) that I have freewill (EFFECT/PURPOSE)"
From what I understand (and please correct me if I'm wrong), cause and effect apply to that which is either conscious and unconscious, whereas reason and purpose only apply to that which is conscious. I'm considering the first time the past sequences of cause and effect produced the first reason and purpose.
Did an unconscious cause produce an effect of a conscious reason and purpose, or has cause and effect always had a reason and a purpose?