Aristotle discusses six dialectical arguments for the non-existence of place in Physics bk. Δ On Place, ch. 1 (209a); Zeno's argument is #5:
if everything that exists has a place, place too will have a place, and so on ad infinitum
Does what I call "idempotence of place" resolve the paradox?:
Place is an idempotent relation because the the place of the place of something is still its place. Thus place(place)=place. Therefore place(place(place(…)))=place.