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I was hearing discussion among a group of philosophy students over Aristotle agruing that Slavery is Natural in his work Politics.

I too get thought after hearing them which is

"We should worship those humans who have more than us. Let it be Power, Wealth or anything we desire. Because, those humans can give us and help us fullfill our desire. For praying to God and Worshiping God, I believe God is just ; He will never do injustice, no matter how much I pray if I do not do enough labour for what I desire God will never give me."

In what ways does my reasoning differ from Aristotle's?

  • See Natural slavery in Aristotle: according to A, slavery is part of "nature", i.e. opart of the "organism" that is a society There is no place of God in his argument. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Apr 4 '17 at 20:24
  • Please add a summary of Aristotle’s argument from his Politics. – Mark Andrews Sep 25 '19 at 0:23
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As I understand Aristotle's "Natural slavery," he makes a distinction between those humans that don't have cognitive powers,and those that do.
Those that don't, he would call "natural slaves."
Those that do, if enslaved, would rebel and cause enmity.

In your first statement, you are agreeing with Aristotle by thinking that one should submit to other humans that are in a higher position, wealthier, etc., "...because they can help us achieve our desires".

In the second statement, you imply that if we are not "slaves" to God (",,, if we don't do enough labor..."), we will get nothing from Him. This statement would also reinforce Aristotle's premise - if true. However, it is not true! Whatever we get from God, it is due to God's generosity, not because we "...labored hard for it." Therefore, we are not God's "slaves"!

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