Did Aristotle every explicitly refer to man as a "rational animal" (ζῷον λόγον ἔχον)?
The internet is riddled with uncited claims to this effect: that "rational animal" was an explicitly stated definition of man that Scholastic philosophy later translated to animal rationale. See for example:
Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy, "Animal Cognition":
The early history of western philosophy reflects a tendency to see animals as lacking rationality. Aristotle defined “human” as “the rational animal”, thus rejecting the possibility that any other species is rational (Aristotle Metaphysics).
The Wikipedia article on Self-Reflection:
More serious is Aristotle's description of man as the "communal animal" (ζῶον πολιτικόν), i.e., emphasizing society-building as a central trait of human nature, and "thought bearer animal" (ζῶον λόγον ἔχον, animal rationale), a term that also inspired the species' taxonomy, Homo sapiens.
(See also German Wikipedia, "Animal rationale".)
Heidegger in his commentary, Plato's Sophist §4:25-26 (without explicit attribution to Aristotle):
Λέγειν primarily takes over the function of ἀληθεύειν. This λέγειν is for the Greeks the basic determination of man: ζῷον λόγον ἔχον.
Regarding Aristotle's reference to human beings as zōon logon echon (see NE, 1098a3-5), usually translated as "rational animal," Heidegger prefers a richer conception of logos and renders the definition as the animal "having" (echon) language, understood as speech and discourse (AM, 102ff).
(Needless to say, I checked the reference and found nothing resembling a definition.)
Many amateur blog posts, such as this one.
So: did Aristotle every refer to man as a rational animal, either offhand or as a formal definition?