What is transcendental apperception in Kant's Philosophy? Is it an instance of knowledge-by-presence (al-Ilm al-Huduri) in Islamic philosophy (especially Mulla Sadra's al-Hikmah al-Mutaaliyyah)?

  • I'm not sure that Kant quite understood the idea of knowledge by identity or presence. Had he done so he would have been less certain that the thing-in-itself is not knowable. I may be doing him an injustice, but apperception is mind's study of itself and while this is important it is not quite the way to get beyond Mind to Identity and 'knowledge by presence'. It seems to me Kant almost recreated the perennial philosophy but had to give up because he did not have the idea of nonduality in his tool-kit.
    – user20253
    Sep 17 '17 at 11:45
  • The "transcendental unity of apperception" is notoriously obscure in Kant, but it is quite clear that it is not knowledge of anything, by presence or otherwise. It is a kind of unifying thread stringing cognitions together and making them into cognitions of a single "self", which, Kant claims, is a condition of the possibility of knowledge. But he derives its existence from an abstract transcendental argument with external knowledge for premises, not from some feels or presences we may or may not experience internally.
    – Conifold
    Sep 17 '17 at 22:24

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