Is it consistent with quantum mechanics to think that:"We live equally in all past, present and future events" which is suggested by Einstein's relativity?
There are three pertinent aspects to this question:
- the time evolution of (special) relativity
- the time evolution of (relativistic) quantum mechanics
- observation of quantum phenomena
I'll keep this answer to special relativity and quantum mechanics as their relationship is very well established. The relationship between general relativity and quantum mechanics is still largely speculative.
For both the time evolution of special relativity and quantum mechanics, the very well attested, underlying mechanics are time reversible. In other words, the equations of motion are the same however you choose to interchange past, present and future.
With just these two, there is nothing special about the past, present or future; these are just arbitrary points on a continuum.
Observation is different and is, with indeterminism, the key driver for QM interpretations. In all the interpretations (that I'm aware of), something qualitatively special occurs in the present i.e. the point of observation. The effect, to the observer, is to make the past deterministic while leaving the future non-deterministic.
In the Copenhagen interpretation, for example, this event is the waveform collapse. In others, such as the many worlds interpretations, the event is more subtle. In the latter, although there is no collapse per se, observation still has the effect of having a past that is not affected by other worlds with a future that is.
So, taking QM observation into account, it is hard to justify a time equality interpretation. Without observation, it falls out of the equations quite naturally.