I'm asking this here as a devil's advocate question because this was closed on skeptics before it received a proper (IMHO) answer.
So, to state the question, if inferring from an object's properties whether it was designed or not is something done in archeology, then how is that any different when done in (the intelligent design version of) biology.
Since I apparently have to give an explanation here how is this different than the other question: if you simply consider ID = creationism, the question are roughly similar, at least as far as answers' premises are concerned. But this/my question is about a specific way (argument) in which ID is presented/promoted, which is entirely absent from the question on creationism. And by the way, it's not even something I made up. It was proposed in this form by Dembski, who has some philosophy credentials. Sure, you can dig through the dozen answers in the other question, and maybe someone has explained this particular aspect regarding ID... but on a first glance it wasn't obvious which answer over there did that.