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In Madness and Civilization does Foucault say / imply that no-one loves a mad person? If not ever, then that it has been a system of power?

I can't tell whether or not I just made that up, when I read it. e.g. he does skirt close to the question ;-)

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p28.

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    yes, but are you saying i have to reread the whole book rather than actually ask a question? that makes no sense, the downvote is absurdly poor @MauroALLEGRANZA
    – user29495
    Nov 26, 2017 at 10:19
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    Exactly: the book is about the history of medical treatment of madness in Western world from the Early Modern Era and about the changing "point of view" of culture and society about madness. Thus, to ask "does Foucault saythat no-one loves a mad person?" has little sense. Nov 26, 2017 at 10:24
  • @MauroALLEGRANZA i can't see what inference you are making there?
    – user29495
    Nov 26, 2017 at 10:25
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    On the face of it, I find it pretty obvious that Foucault is writing about how madness was "still" depicted like in Shakespeare and Cervantes, i.e. beyond appeal (which he specifies explicitly as not curable, not not loveable). Hence, I cannot reconcile title and body of the question really well.
    – Philip Klöcking
    Nov 26, 2017 at 13:54

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