I had a discussion with a professor, who came with this thought: When you randomly sample from a Normal distribution of fixed mean and variance, how can you claim that the sample is random when actually the samples are from a fixed distribution? Are those samples really random? or "random"? I will appreciate if this line of thought can be discussed further. I happen to somewhat agree with his thoughts, am I or he missing some fundamental things here?
PS: When you do this operation on a computer you call it pseudo-random. Assume that a person sampled the samples instead of a computer.