Freya Mathews lists four metaphysical anomalies in Panpsychism as Paradigm http://www.freyamathews.net/downloads/PanpsychismParadigm.pdf. The fourth is the temporal origin of the universe.
On pages 10-11, she discusses “temporal indeterminacy” in contrast to the “current orthodoxy amongst physicists” where “time itself originated at a certain point”. It seems this temporal indeterminacy is possible because “no periodic processes were yet occurring” after the universe began. She claims it is “impossible to impose a measure of time, even retrospectively, on this period”.
My question is why not? If change is occurring, even though it is not yet periodic, why can one not have a “fully temporally determinate universe” at the very beginning of the universe?
Edit (12/13/2017): Here is what I think an answer would look like, but I don’t know what I am missing.
Change, rather than periodic change, is what I think allows a “fully temporally determinate universe”. If one needs, in addition to change, periodic change, what is the periodic change today that allows a fully temporally determinate universe to exist? The changes that I see today that appear to be periodic deviate somewhat from exact periodicity such as the Earth’s orbit around the Sun or the Sun around the galaxy, but perhaps there are such periodic changes occurring that I am unaware of. If it is not possible to impose a measure of time, even retrospectively, on the universe from the start of the big bang, is it even possible to do so today? Perhaps the required periodicity need not be exact? How much deviation from periodicity is allowed to have a “fully temporally determinate universe”?