How can it be possible that two concepts have a connection between them? Even when we admit that every such connection is empirical, we have a necessary connection between the concept "connection" and "arbitrariness". What is their nature?

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    Not clear... there are e.g. definitions that generate links between concepts. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Jan 26 '18 at 10:21
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    Kant addressed this subject: "Since that within which the sensations can alone be ordered and placed in a certain form cannot itself be in turn sensation, the matter of all appearance is only given to us a posteriori, but its form must all lie ready for it in the mind a priori, and can therefore be considered separately from all sensation." (Critique of Pure Reason, A20/B34) – user3017 Jan 27 '18 at 2:38
  • Who are "we"? Many accept so-called analytic connections "in virtue of the meanings" which are not empirical and are necessary, see analytic/synthetic distinction. Indeed, since Frege many consider most of mathematics to be analytic, and natural science, especially physics, to be permeated by essentially mathematical connections (say, between force, acceleration, momentum, kinetic energy..). But even without analyticity what is the problem with concepts overlapping or subsuming each other, which would establish the requisite connections? – Conifold Jan 29 '18 at 1:43
  • @Conifold Wittgenstein's Familienähnlichkeit might give a sufficient answer to that one. – 김세현 Jan 29 '18 at 5:13
  • Family resemblance is indeed a deflated version of analyticity, concepts are "similar" if competent users of language are disposed to use them as such. Since such use depends on the prevailing practice with concepts rather than on observations, these connections are not (straightforwardly) empirical. But this is not the only option, and even Wittgenstein himself acknowledges that the prevailing communal use is not purely cultural or arbitrary, but is ultimately "hardened" from coping with physical reality. – Conifold Jan 29 '18 at 5:30

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