What is Aristotle's refutation/objection/solution to Zeno's paradoxes?
The following is all I could find in around in the Internet:
"Aristotle's solution was largely accepted until the end of 19th century when Cantor and Dedekind formalized the notion of continuum in terms of set theory...Thinking back, one realizes that Aristotle's solution was always incomplete...".
"Unfortunately, Zeno's work has been lost. All we possess are paraphrases by commentators and critics. The paradoxes of motion are known only from their formulation by Aristotle, whose purpose was to criticize and refute them. This presents a number of problems of interpretation, not the least of which are that (1) we do not know against whom the paradoxes were directed, and (2) we do not know exactly how Zeno originally formulated the paradoxes."
The offered bibliographic reference therein is unfortunately unclear.
The following seems to distill better Aristotle's argument, though it seems to:
In my opinion, it is not clear enough, and it offers an accessible reference to only half of the presentation: Barnes, J. (1979) The Presocratic Philosophers, London: Routledge. p. 262.