This article claims that all finite things are actually infinite, however it doesn't explain how this can possibly work only that it is the way the world really works. Numbers and lines are finite, but they can undoubtedly be divided infinitely, thus the finite ultimately contains the infinite!
But that is the most illogical thing and seems to me contradictory, how can something be finite and infinite at the same time time (perhaps this is essentially Zeno's paradox)? Isn't the infinite supposed to be endless and boundless, which is the exact opposite of the measurable and the quantifiable?
So my question is twofold:
- is it true that the finite contains the infinite (whatever that means)?
- how can it be explained logically?