Imagine the following argument:

Yes, there are plenty of coincidences and unexplained phenomena associated with this particular event that some might see as evidence of a conspiracy. But the same thing is true of controlled scientific experiments. Indeed, many natural phenomena are unexplained.

Can anyone tell me what kind of logical fallacy (or fallacies) is involved here?

One thing I notice is that coincidences and unexplained phenomena are casually lumped into one general category, when there can in fact be a vast difference in the magnitude and quality of evidence. This could be an example of comparing apples and oranges.

Also, experiments are a tool scientists use to find answers. If an experiment has an unexpected result, scientists don't just throw it out the window; they try to figure out any anomalies.

However, I'm not sure what to call such a fallacy.

  • Can you give an example? It is hard to tell what you are talking about without understanding what "coincidences and unexplained phenomena" and "vast difference in the magnitude and quality of evidence" refer to. – Conifold Apr 18 '18 at 2:38
  • 9/11, the JFK assassination and ISIS would all work as examples. Another example would be historical patterns, such as apparent "false flag attacks." – David Blomstrom Apr 18 '18 at 12:23
  • I would call it a 'false analogy' – Bram28 Apr 18 '18 at 15:21
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    I do not get what the reasoning is supposed to be. Unexplained phenomena associated with 9/11 are evidence of a conspiracy (or not) because "the same thing is true" (or not) in scientific experiments??? Lumping together disparate things is hasty generalization, is that it? It could also be simply pointing out that unexplained phenomena abound even in the absence of conspiracies or the supernatural. In which case it is not a fallacy but a response to one, the ad ignorantiam. – Conifold Apr 18 '18 at 22:42
  • I'm going to wait for more responses, but you may have nailed it. – David Blomstrom Apr 19 '18 at 0:35

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