In the context of the cosmological argument: How is it possible for an infinite number of equal length moments to have elapsed prior to now?
For more context . . I have read several discussions, including those I've linked, and feel this question has not been answered.
*Edit* Conifold's comment links (is-infinite-regress-of-causation-possible-is-infinite-regress-of-causation-nece) what I think are a couple good answers to my question which I probably just don't understand ..
Those answers state it is possible that infinity moments could have elapsed prior to now. This suggests to me that we have "reached" infinity, which I did not think was possible, by definition. Stated directly: Because time moves forward, it can contribute infinite moments to the future. But it cannot contribute any more moments to the past.
One possibility for a good answer would be one that could address any assumptions I am unwittingly making in my belief that the past is complete.